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Daniel M
Unregistered guest
| | Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2005 - 9:47 pm: | 
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Noting that the gathering of evidence, witness statements, forensic data was haphazard - it is clear to me that it becomes feasible to believe that one (or perhaps more) of the 5 victims was murdered by separate hand or hands.
Surely given the media frenzy and the general mayhem that was Whitechapel in late 1888 would have presented a perfect opportunity for murder and then the general assumption would have been that the perpetrator was JTR. Inconsistencies in the Modus Operandi can suggest to an enquiring mind that 1 (or more) of the canonical victims was killed by separate hands for this precise reason.
Furthermore it does not benefit the debate to entirely believe in the Serial Killer profiling methodology which is often put forward for serial killings since it must hold true that you cannot prove with complete logic the MO of a serial killer - a clever or deceitful person may change their MO - surely this a plausible reason why some serial killers remain at large - there is no link between separate killings perhaps perpetrated by the same hands. Additionally is it appropriate to apply 21st century thinking to 19th century knowledge and experiences?
What do you think?
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